1. Which two Cisco AutoQoS interface statements are true? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. AutoQoS is supported on Frame Relay multipoint subinterfaces.
B. AutoQoS is supported on low-speed ATM PVCs in point-to-point subinterfaces.
C. AutoQoS is supported on serial PPP and HDLC interfaces.
D. AutoQoS is supported only on Frame Relay main interfaces and not on any subinterface configuration.
Answer: BC
2. Which two wireless security statements are true? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. A TACACS+ server is required to implement 802.1x.
B. MIC protects against man-in-the-middle and replay attacks.
C. The 802.1x standard provides encryption services for wireless clients.
D. The AES (symmetric block cipher) is specified in the IEEE 802.11i specification.
E. The IEEE 802.11i specification uses RC4 as its encryption mechanism.
F. WPA requires TKIP and AES as encryption methods.
Answer: BD
3. Which two statements regarding the Wireless LAN Solution Engine (WLSE) are true? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. To support fault and policy reporting, the WLSE requires a Wireless Control System (WCS).
B. When WLSE detects an AP failure, it automatically increases the power and cell coverage of nearby APs.
C. WLSE requires the 2700 location appliance to offer location tracking.
D. WLSE can locate rogue APs and automatically shut them down.
E. WLSE configuration is done using the command line interface (CLI) or a WEB based template.
Answer: BD
4. Which two statements are true about the function of CAC? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. CAC provides guaranteed voice quality on a link.
B. CAC artificially limits the number of concurrent voice calls.
C. CAC is used to control the amount of bandwidth that is taken by a call on a link.
D. CAC prevents oversubscription of WAN resources that is caused by too much voice traffic.
E. CAC allows an unlimited number of voice calls while severely restricting, if necessary, other forms of traffic.
F. CAC solves voice congestion problems by using QoS to give priority to UDP traffic.
Answer: BD
5. Which two statements are true about the implementation of QoS? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. Implementing DiffServ involves the configuration of RSVP.
B. Implementing IntServ allows QoS to be performed by configuring only the ingress and egress devices.
C. Implementing IntServ involves the utilization of RSVP.
D. Traffic should be classified and marked by the core network devices.
E. Traffic should be classified and marked as close to the edge of the network as possible.
Answer: CE

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6. What are the steps for configuring stateful NBAR for dynamic protocols?
Select the best response.
A. Use the command ip nbar protocol-discovery to allow identification of stateful protocols. Use the command ip nbar port-map to attach the protocols to an interface.
B. Use the command match protocol rtp to allow identification of real-time audio and video traffic. Use the command ip nbar port-map to extend the NBAR functionality for well-known protocols to new port numbers.
C. Use the command match protocol to allow identification of stateful protocols. Use the command ip nbar port-map to attach the protocols to an interface.
D. Configure a traffic class. Configure a traffic policy. Attach the traffic policy to an interface.
E. Configure video streaming. Configure audio streaming. Attach the codec to an interface.
Answer: D
7. Two sites are using a multisite centralized call processing model. The voice gateway on the remote branch has lost IP connectivity to its Cisco CallManager server. Which feature enables the remote gateway to take the role of the call agent during the WAN failure?
Select the best response.
A. automated alternate routing (AAR)
B. Cisco CallManager Attendant Console
C. real-time protocol (RTP)
D. Survivable Remote Site Telephony (SRST)
Answer: D
8. To have the best possible voice quality and to utilize effectively the available bandwidth, which queuing and compression mechanisms need to be used?(Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. class-based weighted fair queuing (CBWFQ)
B. low latency queuing (LLQ)
C. priority queuing (PQ) or custom queuing (CQ)
D. Real-Time Transport Protocol (RTP) header compression
E. TCP header compression
F. UDP header compression
Answer: BD
9. Which three statements about end-to-end delay are true? (Choose three.)Select 3 response(s).
A. End-to-end delay is the sum of propagation delays, processing delays, serialization delays, and queuing delays.
B. Coast-to-coast end-to-end delay over an optical link is about 20 ms.
C. Processing delay depends on various factors, which include CPU speed, CPU utilization, IP switching mode, and router architecture.
D. Propagation and serialization delays are related to the media.
E. Propagation delay is the time it takes to transmit a packet and is measured in bits-per-second (bps).
F. Serialization delay is the time it takes for a router to take the packet from an input interface and put it into the output queue of
the output interface.
Answer: ACD
10. What three statements are true about the various deployments of the 802.1x Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)?(Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. EAP-FAST has the ability to tie login with non-Microsoft user databases.
B. EAP-TLS supports static passwords.
C. PEAP supports one-time passwords.
D. LEAP does not support multiple operating systems.
E. LEAP supports Layer 3 roaming.
F. PEAP does not work with WPA.
Answer: ACE

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Product Description
Exam Number/Code: 642-845
Exam Name: Optimizing Converged Cisco Networks Questions and Answers:153Q&A
Update Time:2010-3-23
Price:$69.00
Exam Details
The CCNP exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNP certification. The CCNP (642-845) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection Cisco Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to Cisco Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various Cisco networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.

1. An optical cable is used to transmit:
A. digital audio from a component to a receiver.
B. analog video from a component to a receiver.
C. analog audio from a component to a receiver.
D. digital video from a component to a receiver.
Answer:A
2. Which of the following video outputs from a media PC provide the BEST picture quality, when connecting the media PC to a projector?
A. SVGA
B. VGA
C. S-Video
D. DVI
Answer: D
3. Which of the following communication methods will provide the maximum bandwidth for video streaming through a media extender?
A. 100BaseT Ethernet
B. 802.11g
C. Z-Wave
D. Bluetooth
Answer:A
4. RG-6 coaxial cable is typically used in all of the following applications:
A. multi-room audio, telephone, intercom and temperature control.
B. thermostat, CCTV, smoke detectors and keypads.
C. home theater, lighting control and multi-room audio.
D. video, digital cable, and satellite applications.
Answer: D
5. Which of the following BEST describes CAT5e?
A. Contains four pair of wires of various gauge
B. Contains two wires in a red fireproof jacket
C. Contains four twisted pairs of wires
D. Contains eight wires within a thick jacket with a rip cord
Answer: C

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6. When configuring surround sound systems, speaker delay is used to compensate for speaker:
A. distance.
B. power.
C. size.
D. efficiency.
Answer:A
7. According to Ohm’s Law, which of the following is correct?
A. As voltage increases, resistance decreases
B. As amperage decreases, resistance decreases
C. As resistance decreases, amperage increases
D. As resistance increases, voltage increases
Answer: C
8. Each time the distance from the speaker is doubled, volume decreases by:
A. 3dB.
B. 6dB.
C. 12dB.
D. 24dB.
Answer: B
9. The native resolution for 1080i is:
A. 1920 x 1280.
B. 1920 x 1080.
C. 1280 x 1080.
D. 1280 x 720.
Answer: B
10. Which of the following is the primary purpose of impedance matched volume control?
A. Maintains proper speaker phase
B. Protects the amplifier from damage
C. Protects the digital systems from damage
D. Amplifies the speaker signal
Answer: B

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Exam Details
The CompTIA HTI+ exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the CompTIA Certified Network Associate CompTIA HTI+certification. The CompTIA HTI+ (HT0-201) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection CompTIA Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to CompTIA Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various CompTIA networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.

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Exam Number/Code: HT0-201
Exam Name: CEA-CompTIA DHTI+ Exam Questions and Answers:194Q&A
Update Time:2010-3-23
Price:$109.00
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With the complete collection of questions and answers, Test4actual has assembled to take you through 153 Q&A to your 642-845 exam preparation. In the 642-845 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in CCNP helping to ready you for your successful Cisco Certification.
Exam Details
The CCNP exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNP certification. The CCNP (642-845) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection Cisco Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to Cisco Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various Cisco networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.

Product Description
Exam Number/Code: 642-845
Exam Name: Optimizing Converged Cisco Networks Questions and Answers:153Q&A
Update Time:2010-3-23
Price:$69.00
Exam Details
The CCNP exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNP certification. The CCNP (642-845) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection Cisco Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to Cisco Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure,and troubleshoot the various Cisco networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.

1. What is an Enterprise Vault site?
A.a SQL database for system-wide configuration
B.a geographic configuration reference
C.a collection of policies, servers, and storage
D.a grouping of Active Directory domain controllers
ANSWER: C
2. Rather than distributing the Enterprise Vault (EV) client through the Group Policy Object, the network administrator wants to distribute the Self Installing client through EV custom forms.
What must be enabled on the client to accomplish this?
A.ActiveX controls
B.Background Intelligent Transfer Services
C.Remote Procedure Call
D.Automatic Updates
ANSWER: A
3. Which two functions are performed by the Enterprise Vault (EV) Configuration Wizard? (Select two.)
A.grants privileges to the Vault Service account
B.configures the Provisioning Service
C.creates the EV system mailbox
D.configures the index and shopping basket locations
E.configures the Vault Store Group fingerprint database
ANSWER: AD
4. For optimal performance, which two solutions are best for setting up Enterprise Vault indexes? (Select two.)
A.direct-attached disks
B.SDLT tape drives
C.WORM storage
D.SAN storage
E.NAS device
ANSWER: AD
5. What happens when an administrator rebuilds an index using the Enterprise Vault Administration Console?
A.A snapshot is taken of the index and then rebuilt.
B.The directory service is suspended and the index is rebuilt.
C.The index is added to the specified index location.
D.The entire index is deleted and rebuilt.
ANSWER: D
6. Which two functions does Vault Cache provide to users? (Select two.)
A.access to archived data with limited bandwidth
B.access to archived data without network connectivity
C.access to archived data from search.asp
D.access to archived data from Entourage
E.access to restore from vault
ANSWER: AB
7. Which three options are available for export when restoring a shopping basket in the Enterprise Vault browser search? (Select three.)
A..pst
B..csv
C..tif
D.a subfolder of the restored items folder
E.current folder path inside the mailbox
ANSWER: ADE
8. Enterprise Vault converts mail message attachments to text or HTML.
What is a benefit of changing the default conversion type from HTML to text for certain document types?
A.increases the performance of file conversion
B.allows for the support of additional document types
C.allows for integration with third-party indexing engines
D.significantly reduces the amount of space taken by indexing
ANSWER: A

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9. What are three benefits of enabling Enterprise Vault (EV) for Outlook Web Access users? (Select three.)
A.extends the archived mail availability
B.provides remote access to multiple user archives
C.provides remote access to archived public folder items
D.unloads mail from the Exchange Server
E.runs independent of EV services
ANSWER: ABC
10. From which three sources does Enterprise Vault provide a solution for archiving PST files? (Select three.)
A.Outlook profiles
B.Tape libraries
C.UNIX servers
D.Windows servers
E.Remote client workstations
ANSWER: ADE
11. Enterprise Vault can synchronize which three Exchange permissions with archive permissions? (Select three.)
A.Outlook Delegates permissions
B.Exchange Public Folder permissions
C.Outlook Folder permissions
D.Domain Administrative permissions
E.Outlook Address Book permissions
ANSWER: ABC
12. An organization needs an archiving vendor that can provide low administrative overhead for deploying different archiving strategies.
Which configuration task makes it easier to deploy different archiving strategies using Enterprise Vault (EV)?
A.The administrator creates new Windows groups in Active Directory to align with their archiving strategy and moves the users into these groups.
B.The administrator uses provisioning groups to apply different archiving policies to the various groups.
C.The administrator moves mailboxes to specific group Exchange servers, then runs an EV Policy Manager script for each Exchange Server to deploy the policies.
D.The administrator creates a custom archiving policy for each executive user and leaves the default policy for everyone else.
ANSWER: B
13. In which three languages are Enterprise Vault clients available? (Select three.)
A.Traditional Chinese
B.Danish
C.Portuguese
D.Finnish
E.Hebrew
ANSWER: ABE
14. Enterprise Vault introduced enhanced archiving support for which Microsoft Exchange 2007 feature?
A.Outlook Web Access for Exchange 2007
B.Exchange Managed Folders
C.Exchange Management Shell
D.Exchange Dumpster
ANSWER: B
15. What are two reasons for adopting Enterprise Vault to manage unstructured content? (Select two.)
A.to protect messaging infrastructure to ensure uptime and productivity
B.to enable corporate discovery and end-user search
C.to centralize information management and retention
D.to create and retain snapshots to facilitate instant recovery
E.to enforce compliance with endpoint security policies
ANSWER: BC

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Product Description
Exam Number/Code: st0-072
Exam Name: Symantec Enterprise Vault 8.0 Exchange (STS) Questions and Answers:151Q&A
Update Time:2010-2-21
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1. The data center teamrequires that they be alerted if any of the servers in a remote site go down.However, they do NOT want to receive alerts when the remote site connection goes down.
Which two configuration steps should you take within your network management system (NMS) to meet these requirements? (Choose two.)
A.set up alerts on server status
B.set up alerts on the remote connection status
C.set each of the servers as dependencies for each other
D.set up the remote connection as a dependency for each of the servers
E.set up alerts on the remote router status
ANSWER: AD
2. What is an advantage of using SNMPv2c over using SNMPv1?
A.username parameter
B.get bulk command
C.get next command
D.32 bit counters
E.authentication and encryption
ANSWER: B
3. Whichtwo variables are used in the calculation of Percent Utilization? (Choose two.)
A.configured bandwidth
B.packets per second
C.buffer overruns
D.interface discards
E.bits per second
ANSWER: AE
4. Due to a server crash, you had to moveOrion to a new server with a new IP address.
Which two changes should you make to ensure thatOrion functions properly from the new server and IP address? (Choose two.)
A.update the access control lists (ACLs) thatrestrict management protocols
B.change the IP address specified in the snmpd.conf file on the Orion server
C.update the source address for NetFlow packets exported to Orion
D.notify ARIN of the Orion server’s new IP address
E.update the destination IP address for Syslog and SNMP traps on your managed devices
ANSWER: AE
5. You are monitoring your Internet connection, and your ISP has guaranteed512 Kbps. Historical data shows that your connection speedholds at 256 Kbps for long periods of time, but never exceeds this speed.
What does this indicate?
A.The ISP has misconfigured the link.
B.The WAN router is misconfigured.
C.The NAT table is overloaded.
D.QoS is dropping low priority traffic.
ANSWER: A

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6. Your current deployment has multiple Orion NPM serversmonitoring multiplelocationsfrom a single site. This is producing inaccurate dataandhigh WAN bandwidth utilization.
Whatare the twomost efficientways to address this issue? (Choose two.)
A.deploy Orion NPMat each remote location
B.deploy Orion Enterprise Operations Console
C.deploy an additional Orion Poller
D.deploy an additional Orion Web Server
E.deploy an Orion Hot Standby
ANSWER: AB
7. How does the Orion Universal Device Poller (UnDP) monitor a device’s statistics that are notincludedin the standard Orion NPM MIB database?
A.by manually associatingthe device’sOID to Orion
B.by keeping a copy of the device’s MIB on the Orion NPM Server
C.by automatically searching the common MIB repositories and updating Orion
D.bymanually compiling the MIB into the Orion MIB database
E.bymanually compiling the OID into the Orion MIB database
ANSWER: A
8. Which protocol should a network engineer enable on routers and switches to collectutilization statistics?
A.ICMP
B.SNMP
C.SMTP
D.WMI
ANSWER: B
9. A network engineer is enabling SNMP on their network devices and needs to ensureit will use message integrity.
Which version of SNMP should they use?
A.SNMPv1
B.SNMPv2c
C.SNMPv3
D.SNMPv4
ANSWER: C
10. A network engineer notices the Syslog server’s database is growingsignificantly in sizedue to thelarge number of devices sending Syslog messages.
What should the engineer do to control database growth?
A.configure the Syslog server to discard unwanted messages
B.configure the devices and the Syslog server to use TCP-based Syslog
C.configure the devices and the Syslog server to use SNMPv3
D.configure the Syslog server to capture SNMP traps instead of Syslog
ANSWER: A

1. Which of the following is NOT true about XML columns?
A.Data can be retrieved by SQL.
B.Data can be retrieved by XQuery.
C.XML columns must be altered to accommodate additional parent and child relationships.
D.Access to any portion of an XML document can be direct, without reading the whole document.
Answer: C
2. A DRDA host database resides on a z/OS or an i5/OS system and listens on port 446. The TCP/IP address for this system is 192.168.10.1 and the TCP/IP host name is myhost. Which of the following commands is required to update the local node directory so that a DB2 client can access this DRDA database?
A.CATALOG TCPIP NODE myhost REMOTE db2srv SERVER 446
B.CATALOG TCPIP NODE mydb2srv REMOTE myhost SERVER 446
C.CATALOG TCPIP NODE myhost REMOTE db2srv SERVER 192.168.10.1
D.CATALOG TCPIP NODE mydb2srv REMOTE myhost SERVER 192.168.10.1
Answer: B
3. The following SQL statements were executed in sequence:
What is the current content of the staffsalary table?
A.ID | EMPSALARY —————– 10 | 60000 20 | 50000.00 —————–
B.ID | EMPSALARY —————– 10 | 50000.00 20 | 50000.00 —————–
C.ID | EMPSALARY —————– 10 | 60000.00 20 | 60000.00 —————–
D.ID | EMPSALARY —————– 10 | 60000.00 20 | 50000.00 —————–
Answer: C
4. Which of the following queries will correctly return the manager information sorted by the manager’s last name,department and project name?
A.SELECT lastname, dept, projname, manager, startdate
FROM (SELECT name, dept, proj AS projname, manager, startdate
FROM employee, project
WHERE empno = empno) AS empproj
ORDER BY name, dept, projname
B.SELECT lastname, dept, projname, manager, startdate
FROM (SELECT name AS lastname, dept, proj AS projname, manager, startdate
FROM employee, project
WHERE empno = mgrno) AS empproj
SORT BY lastname, firstname, dept, projname
C.SELECT lastname, dept, projname, manager, startdate
FROM (SELECT name AS lastname, dept, proj AS projname, manager, startdate
FROM employee, project
WHERE empno = mgrno) AS empproj
ORDER BY lastname ASC
SORT BY dept, projname DESC
D.SELECT lastname, dept, projname, manager, startdate
FROM (SELECT name AS lastname, dept, proj AS projname, manager, startdate
FROM employee, project
WHERE empno = mgrno) AS empproj
ORDER BY lastname, dept, projname
Answer: D
5. Which of the following strings can be inserted into an XML column using XMLPARSE?
A.”<employee/>”
B.”<?xml version=’1.0′ encoding=’UTF-8′ ?>”
C.”<!DOCTYPE hello SYSTEM ‘hello_world.dtd’>”
D.”<x xmlns:ibmcert=’http://www.ibm.com/certify’>”
Answer: A
6. When defining a referential constraint between the parent table T2 and the dependent table T1,which of the following is true?
A.The list of column names in the FOREIGN KEY clause can be a subset of the list of column
names in the primary key of T2 or a UNIQUE constraint that exists on T2.
B.The list of column names in the FOREIGN KEY clause can be a subset of the list of column
names in the primary key of T1 or a UNIQUE constraint that exists on T1.
C.The list of column names in the FOREIGN KEY clause must be identical to the list of column
names in the primary key of T2 or a UNIQUE constraint that exists on T2.
D.The list of column names in the FOREIGN KEY clause must be identical to the list of column
names in the primary key of T1 or a UNIQUE constraint that exists on T1.
Answer: C
7. Which of the following is the lowest cost DB2 product that can be legally installed on a Linux server that has 6 CPUs?
A.DB2 Express Edition
B.DB2 Personal Edition
C.DB2 Workgroup Server Edition
D.DB2 Enterprise Server Edition
Answer: D
8. Which of the following is the lowest cost DB2 product that can be legally installed on an AIX server?
A.DB2 Express Edition
B.DB2 Personal Edition
C.DB2 Workgroup Server Edition
D.DB2 Enterprise Server Edition
Answer: C

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9. Which of the following DB2 products are required on an iSeries or System i server to enable an application running on that server to retrieve data from a DB2 database on a Linux server?
A.DB2 for i5/OS
B.DB2 Runtime Client
C.DB2 Connect Enterprise Edition
D.DB2 for i5/OS SQL Development Kit
Answer: A
10. Which product must be installed on z/OS to allow a COBOL program running on that machine to access data on a remote DB2 for z/OS server?
A.DB2 for z/OS
B.DB2 Run-Time Client for z/OS
C.DB2 Connect Enterprise Edition for z/OS
D.z/OS Application Connectivity to DB2 for z/OS and OS/390
Answer: A
11. Which of the following tools can make recommendations for indexes and/or MQTs to improve the performance of DB2 applications?
A.Design Advisor
B.Visual Explain
C.Performance Advisor
D.Configuration Assistant
Answer: A
12. Which of the following DB2 tools allows a user to execute an SQL statement and view a graphical representation of the access plan?
A.Task Center
B.Command Editor
C.Developer Workbench
D.Command Line Processor
Answer: B
13. Which tool must be used to analyze all of the database operations performed by an application against a DB2 for i5/OS database?
A.Visual Explain
B.Activity Monitor
C.SQL Performance Monitor
D.DB2 Performance Monitor
Answer: C
14. Which of the following tools for DB2 V9 allows a user to create and debug a SQL stored procedure?
A.Control Center
B.Development Center
C.Developer Workbench
D.Stored Procedure Builder
Answer: C
15. Which of the following tools can be used to schedule a backup operation that is to be run every Sunday evening?
A.Journal
B.Task Center
C.Activity Monitor
D.Command Line Processor
Answer: B

With the complete collection of questions and answers, Test4actual has assembled to take you through 128 Q&A to your 000-730 exam preparation. In the 000-730 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in DB2 helping to ready you for your successful IBM Certification.
Exam Details
The DB2 exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the IBM Certified Network Associate DB2 certification. The DB2 (000-730) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection IBM Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to IBM Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various IBM networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.

Product Description
Exam Number/Code: 000-730
Exam Name: DB2 9 Fundamentals Questions and Answers:128Q&A
Update Time:2010-3-11
Price:$119.00
Exam Details
The DB2 exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the IBM Certified Network Associate DB2 certification. The DB2 (000-730) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection IBM Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to IBM Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various IBM networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.