1. A network administrator wants to limit RPC traffic across the network and decides to completely restrict the use of DCOM and RPC for end users.

Which Enterprise Vault (EV) Client Extensions should be installed?

A. EV Vault Cache

B. EV HTTP Only Add-In

C. EV Archive Explorer

D. EV OWA Extensions

Answer: B

2. What are the three primary physical data-storage components of Mailbox Archiving in Enterprise Vault?

(Select three.)

A. Indexes

B. Archives

C. Vault Store partitions

D. Enterprise Vault databases

E. Enterprise Vault Collector

Answer: ACD

3. What is the recommended minimum number of processors for Enterprise Vault servers?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 4

D. 8

Answer: B

4. What is the Vault Store configuration result after upgrading to Enterprise Vault 8.0?

A. All Vault Stores are fingerprinted for single instancing.

B. Each Vault Store is added to its own Vault Store Group.

C. All Vault Stores are added to a Default Vault Store Group.

D. Each Vault Store is configured for partition rollover.

Answer: C

5. Which mailbox does the Archiving Task use to connect to the Exchange Server?

A. any mailbox on the Exchange Server

B. the journal mailbox on the Exchange Server

C. the Exchange System mailbox

D. the Enterprise Vault System mailbox

Answer: D

6. A user moves a shortcut created in Enterprise Vault (EV) from a Personal Expenses folder to a Business folder. The folders are associated with Personal Expenses and Business retention categories, respectively. The user notices that when the shortcut is moved, the retention category for the item remains as Personal Expenses.

What should the administrator do to allow the item to inherit the retention period of the folder the item moves in to?

A. EV is working as designed. To change the retention, the user must restore and rearchive the item with the new retention category.

B. modify the options on the Moved Items tab of the Exchange Mailbox Policy to allow retention category updates

C. right-click the mailbox folders and select Update Retention

D. within Site Properties, select the Retention Categories tab and select Update Retention upon Move

Answer: B

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1. A company installed Symantec NetBackup 7.0 on existing Windows 32-bit servers with 2 GB of RAM. When configuring the Media Server Deduplication Option (MSDP), an error occurs.

What should be done to resolve this error?

A. add additional memory to the Symantec NetBackup servers

B. uninstall Symantec NetBackup and upgrade the servers to Windows 64-bit 

C. run nbdevconfig to configure the storage servers

D. cluster the existing Symantec NetBackup servers and reconfigure the MSDP

Answer: B 

2. If frequency-based cleaning of a drive is desired, which parameter must be set in the Symantec NetBackup 7.0 administration console?

A. Cleaning Frequency (Between mounts)

B. Cleaning Frequency (In GB)

C. Cleaning Frequency (Between backups)

D. Cleaning Frequency (In hours)

Answer: D 

3. A request is made to change volume residences.

Which two conditions must be met in the volume group that is associated with the changes? (Select two.)

A. All volumes in a volume group must have the same residence.

B. All volumes must have barcode labels.

C. All volumes must be assigned to scratch pool.

D. All volumes must be vaulted before adding volumes to the group.

E. All volumes must have the same media type.

Answer: AE 

4. An administrator configures two standalone LTO4 tape drives on a Symantec NetBackup 7.0 media server with an existing tape library with an LTO4 drive.

How should the administrator configure the storage units?

A. place each standalone drive in its own storage unit B. place the two standalone drives in a single new storage unit

C. place the two standalone drives in an existing storage unit with the other LTO4 drives

D. place the two standalone drives in a new storage unit group

Answer: B 

5. Refer to the exhibit.

In the exhibit, the server_data policy is greyed out and marked with a red “X.” 

What does this indicate?

A. The policy is using a FlashBackup policy, but the Enterprise client is unlicensed.

B. The policy is using an AdvancedDisk storage unit, but the Flexible Disk option is unlicensed.

C. The policy’s “go into effect” date is disabled or set to a date in the future.

D. A backup run from this policy recently failed and the status is in the Activity Monitor.

Answer: C 

6. An administrator needs to back up a Windows 2003 client and creates a backup selections list that includes the System_State directive.

What happens when the backup runs?

A. The backup runs successfully.

B. The job is partially successful. All files are backed up except the system state.

C. The backup fails. None of the files are backed up because Shadow Copy Components is required for Windows 2003 clients.

D. The backup fails. None of the requested files are backed up because Shadow Copy Components is required for Windows 2003 clients.

Answer: A 

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Exam Number/Code : st0-058

Exam Name : Veritas Storage Foundations 5.1 for Windows (STS)

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Update Time : 2010-11-28

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1. What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows volume layout that achieves redundancy by striping data

with parity across multiple disks?

A. RAID 5

B. striped mirroring

C. concatenation

D. mirroring

Answer: A

2. What is a best practice when installing Dymanic Multi-pathing for Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows?

A. have a single physical path to storage

B. turn off the hardware cache on external storage

C. have all physical paths to storage enabled

D. physically remove all the HBAs from the server

Answer: A

3. Which command can you use to set the read policy on a plex in Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows?

A. vxvol

B. vxplex

C. vxassist

D. vxedit

Answer: A

4. Which action in the Veritas Enterprise Administrator console should you use to move a set of subdisks from one

dynamic disk group to a new dynamic disk group?

A. Split Dynamic Disk Group

B. Remove Disks from Dynamic Disk Group

C. Move Dynamic Disk Group Objects

D. Join Dynamic Disk Group

5. Which advantage does the FlashSnap feature of Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows provide?

A. hardware-independent, point-in-time copies of data

B. hardware-independent, synchronous remote copies of data

C. fast recovery of disk group configuration

D. sharing of disk groups across heterogeneous systems

Answer: A

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QUESTION NO: 1

An administrator has successfully installed Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager onto a Windows 2003 Server using the installation wizard. Which component is deployed to the server at this point in time?

A. AntiVirus/AntiSpyware Protection

B. Proactive Threat Protection

C. Apache Tomcat Server

D. Central Quarantine Server

E. Network Threat Protection

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 2

Based on Symantec best practices, which two tasks should be performed before migrating from Symantec AntiVirus Corporate Edition to Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0? (Select two.)

A.disable Auto-Protect

B.disable scheduled scans

C.disable Tamper Protection

D.scan all clients

E.purge the quarantine

Answer: B, C

QUESTION NO: 3

Which Symantec Endpoint Protection client component must be installed to enable Unmanaged Detector mode?

A. AntiVirus and AntiSpyware

B. Application and Device Control

C. Network Threat Protection

D. Network Access Control

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 4

How many Symantec Endpoint Protection Managers can connect to an embedded database?

A. one

B. two

C. four

D. unlimited

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 5

Immediately after installation, what does a client do upon first contacting Symantec Endpoint Security Manager?

A. register with the manager

B. download the latest policy

C. update virus definitions

D. launch a full system scan

Answer: A

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Exam Number/Code : st0-91w
Exam Name : Symantec NetBackup 7.0 for Windows(STS)

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Update Time : 2010-11-28

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Exam Number/Code : st0-025

Exam Name : Symantec Security Information Manager 4.5 (STS)

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Update Time : 2010-11-28

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QUESTION NO: 1

What are two ways in which new entries can be added to the Assets Table of a Symantec Security Information Manager solution? (Choose two.)

A. through the Lookup Tables pane of the Information Manager Console

B .importing from HP OpenView through the OpenView Integration feature

C. importing from a .CSV file exported from Active Directory

D. automatic population through a supported vulnerability scanner

Answer: C, D

QUESTION NO: 2

Which three ratings does the Information Manager Assets Table use to quantify the importance of the device and help determine how to escalate security incidents related to that device? (Choose three.)

A. Confidentiality

B. Criticality

C. Availability

D. Priority

E. Integrity

Answer: A, C, E

QUESTION NO: 3

How can you determine which ports are potentially vulnerable on a given host in the Assets Table?

A. by running the NetScan user action on the asset

B. by looking at the Services tab on the asset

C. by viewing the Details tab for the asset

D. by running the Host Information report on the asset

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 4

How do you install the Symantec Security Information Manager (SSIM) Console?

A. on the SSIM DVD, go to Tools and install the client

B. go to the SSIM web interface, download the client and click Run

C. from the SSIM appliance, deploy the console to your machine

D. No installation is necessary because SSIM is a browser-based tool.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 5

Which menu options do you select in the user interface to shut down or reboot the Symantec Security Information Manager (SSIM) appliance?

A. System –> Shutdown/Restart

B. SSIM Console –> Shutdown/Restart

C. SSIM –> Configure Appliance –> Shutdown/Restart

D. SSIM Console –> Systems tab

Answer: C

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Update Time : 2010-11-28

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Exam Number/Code : st0-12x
Exam Name : Veritas Cluster Server 5 for Unix (STS)

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QUESTION NO: 1

Two applications must either be online on the same system of a cluster or offline on the same system of a cluster. Which Location of Dependency supports this behavior?

A. global

B. local

C. hard

D. remote

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 2

A dependent service group can be brought online on SystemA only if an independent service group is online in the same Veritas Cluster Server cluster. If the independent service group faults, the dependent service group is taken offline. After the independent service group successfully fails over, Veritas Cluster Server will bring the dependent service group online. Which type of service group dependency does this describe?

A. online global firm

B. online local soft

C. offline local soft

D. offline global hard

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 3

You have a two-system cluster with a production application on one system and a test application on another. The test and production applications cannot run on the same system at the same time. If the production application needs to fail over, the test application must be shut down first. Which category of service group dependency supports this behavior?

A. offline

B. global

C. local

D. online

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 4

You are running a Veritas Cluster Server cluster that is replicating to a remote site. Your DBA creates a new volume for additional table space. How could this affect your disaster recovery? A. The amount of tablespace replicated may now exceed the licensed amount.

B. The additional table space may not be formatted for replication.

C. The number of volumes replicated may now exceed the licensed amount.

D. The volume may not be added to the replicated volume group.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 5

What is the Veritas Storage Foundation feature that allows you to easily get a static copy of replicated data at the secondary site?

A. Snapshots

B. FastResync

C. Data Change Maps

D. Global Cluster Option

Answer: A

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Questions and Answers : 65Q&As

Update Time : 2010-11-28

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QUESTION NO: 1

Which functionality found in Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 Windows Edition is also available

in Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 Linux Edition?

A. converting an image file to a virtual hard disk

B. creating a backup every month on a specified day

C. managing backups using a local graphical console

D. restoring an entire computer to the same hardware

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 2

What is the first required step tor managing computers from Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010

Management Solution?

A. create resource targets

B. define backup policies

C. install the Alans Agent

D. discover computers on the network

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 3

What is the minimum amount of memory required to run Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 for

Linux17

A. 256 MB

B. 384 MB

C. 512MB

D. 1 GB

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 4

An administrator has an internal drive that is only used for temporary storage. Which option must Deconfigured to disable status reporting for this drive?

A. Error Only status reporting

B. Configure status reporting

C. No status reporting

D. Full status reporting

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 5

A computer is currently managed by Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery Manager 8.5. The administrator needs to manage that computer using Symantec Backup Exec System Recovery 2010 Management Solution.

Which component will be removed during migration?

A. Altihs plug-in

B. Altihs Agent

C. Management Console

D. Management Control

Answer: D

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Questions and Answers : 144Q&As

Update Time : 2010-11-28

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QUESTION NO: 1

Which two statements are true about the “Recovered Jobs” Error Handling rule? (Select two.)

A.It is only used in a Central Administration Server (CAS) environment.

B.It is enabled by default.

C.It is used to recover all failed jobs.

D.It retries the job based on the “Recovered Jobs” error handling rule settings.

E.It terminates the active job and sends an alert.

Answer: B, D

QUESTION NO: 2

To ensure that the Symantec Backup Exec database is kept within the maximum database size limitations,which two options should be set to control the amount of data that is groomed? (Select two.)

A.alert history

B.catalogs

C.install files

D.job history

E.backup-to-disk files

Answer: A, D

QUESTION NO: 3

Which process is used to install Symantec tape device drivers after attaching a new tape library on a Symantec Backup Exec 2010 media server?

A. right-click on the device inside the Devices view and choose Install Tape Drivers

B. use Windows Device Manager to install Symantec drivers

C. use the Tape Device Configuration Wizard to install Symantec drivers

D. use the Tape Driver Install Wizard to install Symantec drivers

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 4

In the Job Monitor tab, when is the “Created On” column visible?

A. when Detailed Monitoring is enabled

B. when there is a Central Administration Server (CAS)

C. when the Date field is added to the View propertiesD. when the backup job state is Running

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 5

Which two notification delivery methods can receive job logs as part of the notification process? (Select two.)

A.pager

B.printer

C.email

D.fax

E.Instant Messenger

Answer: B, C

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QUESTION NO: 1

Which information is recommended to be included in an Exact Data Matching (EDM) data source?

A. date fields

B. numeric fields with fewer than five digits

C. column names in the first row

D. country, state, or province names

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 2

What must a policy manager do when working with Exact Data Matching (EDM) indexes?

A. re-index large data sources on a daily or weekly basis

B. index the original data source on the detection server

C. deploy the index only to specific detection servers

D. create a new data profile if data source schema changes

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 3

Which two protocols are available by default and recognized by Network Monitor by their individual signatures? (Select

two.)

A. FTP

B. HTTPS

C. IM: AIM

D. SNMP

E. TFTP

Answer: A, C

QUESTION NO: 4

What does Network Monitor use to identify network traffic going to a nonstandard port? A. string matching

B. port range

C. either UDP or TCP

D. protocol signature

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 5

Which detection server can block file transfer protocol (FTP) requests?

A. Network Monitor Server

B. FTP Prevent Server

C. Web Prevent Server

D. Endpoint Prevent Server

Answer: C

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LOOK THE DEMO FIRST:

QUESTION NO: 1

What is the minimum version of the .NET framework required on the Enterprise Vault Server for Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange?

A. .NET 4.0

B. .NET 3.5 SP1

C. .NET 1.1 and 2.0

D. .NET 2.0 and 3.0 SP2

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 2

Which feature delegation must be set to Read/Write in Internet Information Services (IIS 7.0) before installing Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange Outlook Web Access (OWA) Extensions?

A. .NET Trust Levels

B. .NET Roles

C. Failed Request Tracing Rules

D. IPv4 Address and Domain Restrictions

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 3

A backup administrator needs to protect the Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange server environment. In order to perform a point-in-time recovery of the database, what must be backed up daily?

A. the EnterpriseVaultDirectory SQL database

B. the SQL transaction logs

C. the SQL databases

D. the EnterpriseVaultAuditing SQL database

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 4

A backup administrator needs to protect the Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange server environment. The administrator has yet to run a backup of the vault store partition. The administrator has Safety Copy enabled for the Vault Store. Given that the administrator has already performed some mailbox archiving, what should occur after running the backup for the first time and clearing the archive bit?

A. The safety copies are removed from the Exchange store.

B. The safety copies are removed from the storage queues.

C. The safety copies are flagged for removal for the next Storage Expiry. D. The safety copies are flagged for removal when the services are restarted.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 5

A backup administrator needs to protect the Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange server environment. On which context menu in the Vault Admin Console does the administrator set and clear the vault store backup mode?

A. the Enterprise Vault database

B. the Enterprise Vault services

C. the Enterprise Vault server

D. the Enterprise Vault site

Answer: D

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